Saturday, March 05, 2011

To justify genocide, pedophilia, rape, and slavery, one needs only to point to Muhammad

In response to Tsaritsyn, who asks, "how is your view, or your argument any different [than those who misquote, propagandize, and stereotype]?"
I'm telling the truth. If not, point out my error.

And if I'm quoting the Islamic texts, what "only one interpretation" am I "assuming"?

How I understand the texts doesn't matter. What matters is how Muslims interpret them. The fact is, devout Muslims have traditionally understood Muhammad's words and deeds as recorded in Qur'an, hadith, and sira literally. Centuries of commentary on those texts explain, for example, that even disbelief is "warring against Allah." Al-Ghazali, the "greatest Muslim after Muhammad," affirmed the necessity of warring against and subjugating non-Muslims. This is why no major school of Islamic jurisprudence rejects offensive warfare against "unbelievers" who refuse both the "invitation" to convert and the demand for surrender and tribute. That's 99% of official Islam.

In speaking of Christ and Allah, I've had everything flung at me. But Abraham, the Crusades, the Inquisition, etc., etc., ad infinitum, ad absurdum, ad nauseam, are merely false tu quoques, deflections, red herrings, distractions, as if those events -- even if they were proof of Christianity/Judaism being "just as bad" as Islam, which they are not -- negate fourteen hundred years of genocide, rape, and slavery in obedience to Allah and in emulation of his genocidal pedophile Muhammad.

In fact, those false charges from Muslims and their Useful Idiot dhimmis highlight the distinction between Christianity and Islam: When God commanded Abraham to offer his son Isaac as a test, did he command Abraham to kill other peoples' sons? But Allah promises paradise to those who kill and are killed fighting in its cause (Qur'an 9:111; no, that's not a typo).

As for the Crusades and Inquisition, where is the Biblical command for them? Nowhere. Period.

Besides that, the first Crusade was called in response to centuries of Christians under attack by . . . you guessed it! Islam. And the Spanish Inquisition? That was a reaction to eight hundred years of Islamic rule in Andalusia.

(I wonder, where did Christians get the idea to use political power in pursuit of religious goals? Could it have been from their Muslim overlords?)

No, only by misquoting Biblical passages can one justify evil with them; with Islam, to justify genocide, pedophilia, rape, and slavery, one needs only to imitate Muhammad.

As for anti-Semitic propaganda, where have I "twisted facts"? Which Jews are blowing up schools or beheading girls to shouts of "YHWH is greatest!"? Even if they were, to which Biblical text can they point in support of such barbarity? But the jihadists who butcher, rape, and maim every day around the world -- and have done so for the last nearly one and one-half millennia -- find ample justification for their crimes against God and Man from Muhammad's words and deeds.

"kill the pagans wherever you find them" (Qur'an 9:5).